How Did Latin Establish An Artificial Bilingual Education?

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It’s with the Roman Empire and subsequent European states that the parallels in distancing discourse become clearer. With Latin being the basis of Spanish and French (among the other romance languages) it becomes easy to draw comparisons [Fisher 3]. Although English is not a romance language it does import many elements from French and Anglo-Norman. Latin employed distancing though the use of titles; praetor (one in front), magistratus (bigger, more), senatus (old man & office; the basis for the modern “senator”) and other titles fit this bill [Ancient Latin lecture]. Efforts in Spain and France were taken to systematically do away with metaphors that served no purpose to the repressive class, and were instead replaced with metaphors that …show more content…

Rather than having one common language evolve independently and partition into two languages (that for the rulers, and that for the ruled), Russian relied on imports [Russian XIX]. Old Church Slavonic was imported north and became the official language of the church. Though the language was never an official administrative language, it retained influence in such matters [Russian lecture]. As the Russian aristocracy began to develop to be more reflective of the trends in the rest of Europe, French became the de facto language of the ruling class [Russian lecture]. Latin had a relationship with Greek similar to that of Russian and Old Church Slavonic (and later Russian and French.) However, the Roman Empire imported the Greek language in quite a unique manner, it seized control of the Greek Empire [parallel use 897]. This was followed by the adoption of the Greek alphabet for writing Latin [Coleman, 792]. Immediately the ruling class of Rome began learning Greek for power and prestige [parallel use, 899]. This allowed for the “cultivation among the upper social classes at Rome of the language and high culture of Greece” [Coleman 792]. This division (via knowledge of Greek) was important for maintaining a distinction between the upper and lower classes of society. The Romans also made a distinction within their own language, differences between …show more content…

One of the first such cases is England (and the path to English). With the collapse of the Roman Empire, rule of England was ceded to the local “armed bands” [England lecture]. Theodisc and East Old Norse were the primary languages of these bands, and Englisc came to replace East Old Norse. However, there was no real use of bilingualism as a purpose of establishing power with these languages. Enter the Normans, in 1066 the Norman Duke William (under the belief he had the “right to rule England [England lecture]) invaded and defeated the Anglo-Saxon king. At this time the general population had come to speak Englisc (or some dialect of it), while the Norman invaders spoke a dialect of Old French (which would later come to be called Anglo-Norman) and kept written records in Latin [Kahane 186]. Gradually, there was a shift in the vernacular (from Anglo-Norman to English) as well as a shift in the written language (from Latin to Anglo Norman) [England lecture]. In order to maintain distance and further the effects of bilingualism, various phrases and words were imported from French to Anglo-Norman, as were expressions from Latin (as a sort of revival of the language.) This enhanced version of Anglo-Norman for parliamentary use was a reflection (or representation) of the success of the use of Latin and

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