Aristotle's Definition Of Leisure In Ancient Greece

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Defining what the term leisure means is a complex undertaking for the simple fact it is dependent on the individual considering the concept. When reviewing the statement by Aristotle we must first understand his perspective regarding leisure and then apply that to examples throughout history. This essay will go through that process by comparing his standpoint with how the term leisure was applied to certain activities during ancient Rome and England through the centuries. In doing so the essay will reveal how the relevance of Aristoteles statement has diminished with time.

Aristotle in explaining his definition of leisure drew a clear line between leisure and play (Pike & Price, 2008, p. 13). It is this line that separates the examples throughout history. His view of happiness and pleasure implied the activity undertaken was done so for …show more content…

With the advancements in technology provided by the industrial revolution all walks of society could now afford to enjoy time away from work (Chant, 2008) and for the most part what they described as leisure time Aristotle would have described as play (Pike & Price, 2008, pp. 12-13) Whether for health reasons or simply to enjoy the sunshine and get a nice tan these activities are all comprised of actions that Aristotle would class as a means to an end and not for their own sake and therefore by his definition not leisure activities (Pike & Price, 2008, pp. 12-13)There is no focus on politics or Greek philosophy as was the case with Pliny the Younger instead Coco Chanel who by Aristoteles definition would be classes as a person excelling at their function (Pike & Price, 2008, p. 15) is seen as having an appearance to aspire to due to a deep tan and its association with health and being able to afford extended free time that they would categorise as leisure (Brunton, 2008, p.

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