King Lear Misogynist Analysis

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The name of the self-entitled play, King Lear, by William Shakespeare is evidence that it has misogynistic viewpoints. In fact, the play opens with a discussion of a father, Gloucester, about having an illegitimate child, Edmund. In this discussion, Gloucester does not acknowledge the son, insulting him and expresses prejudice against his mother in the process. Throughout the story, there are countless accounts of men cursing women and belittling women, and most importantly there are lack of women. There are only three women in the play; all of whom meet unfortunate endings. The women are the daughters of the king, two of which inherits his kingdom. The powers that are given to the daughters, and to Edmund was not likely to be granted. There …show more content…

(1.1.122-128)
King Lear swears on practically the universe in that he is disowning Cordelia for life. His reference to the “mysteries of Hecate” is significant because Hecate is the goddess of magic and witchcraft. Moreover, the patriarchal society should give the man the power to make such statements and declarations without swearing. The questioning aspects of the patriarchal society in the play is challenged in Lear’s assertions making his influence appear weaker than it is. In King Lear’s cursing of Cordelia and calling on the gods, the power of his words is also being manifested on his other daughters. In the book, Suffocating Mothers, by Janet Adelman, there is a chapter which goes into depth on the women and lack of them in King Lear. In one section, Adelman comments on the scene with King Lear cursing Cordelia and calls on the goddess, Hecate as mentioned before. In Adelman’s words, “Lear calls upon the dark female region of the storm as though it were his to command; but, once invoked, it will take on a life of its own, peopled by Goneril and Regan the cannibalistic witch-children his own rage has made” (119). The play challenges patriarchy because as a head of the household King Lear cannot manifest his words and curse his daughter correctly. The control that comes along with patriarchy is not handled with King Lear especially since he gave that control …show more content…

In King Lear, both categories are given property. Goneril and Regan received property though it was presented to their husbands. King Lear has certain moments where it is apparent that the play does follow a patriarchal society. For example, he presents the property of the wives to the husbands, Cornwall and Albany. As stated by King Lear, “Cornwall and Albany, / With my two daughters’ dowers digest the third. / Let pride, which she calls plainness, marry her. / I do invest you jointly with my power, /Preeminence and all the large effects, /That troop with majesty” (1.1.142-148). King Lear presents the crown to Cornwall and Albany with the privileges that entail and yet it is the wives’ statements that awarded them the crowns initially. If the society were a correct patriarchal society, Goneril and Regan would not even have the opportunity to speak in any formal setting. Furthermore, the two women are the ones who carried through some of the unusual events in the

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