Is Hamlet Glass Half Full Or Half Empty

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For centuries, a controversial question has plagued the minds of readers worldwide… Is Hamlet’s ecstasy throughout William Shakespeare’s famous tragedy faked or genuine? The answer to this question is not completely forthright. The question itself is easily comparable to the commonly used phrase, “is the glass half full or half empty?” There is no uniform response; there are merely only theories supported by evidence that may also be theoretical and controversial. It is simply the way the reader interprets Hamlet’s character that decides their side of the argument. Hamlet may be interpreted as merely Shakespeare’s depiction of man’s reaction to the loss of a father-figure and therefore suffering from chronic depression. The character of Hamlet …show more content…

Suffering from the unruly murder of his father and insestuous marriage of his mother, both occurrences enmeshing Claudius in some way, one could only expect the victim to bid farewell to his sanity. Ophelia demonstrates complete loss of thought and reason within Act IV, mindlessly singing songs about the death of her father. “And will not ‘a come again? And will not ‘a come again? No, no, he is dead. Go to thy deathbed. He will never come again,” (Shakespeare, 109) is just one of the rambling rhymes that Ophelia chimes about her father, lacking all politeness and manner. Hamlet, however, is an extremely dynamic and complex creation. He ultimately uses insanity to his benefit by perturbing answers out of the mouths of his enemies. He also uses equivocation; or a strong vocabulary, to his benefit, using large words and complicated phrases to coax the answers and intentions out of characters such as Polonius, Claudius, and even Ophelia. “Besides, to be demanded of a sponge… that soaks up the King’s countenance,” said Hamlet to Guildenstern in remark to his loyalty to the King, which is seen as an act of rebellion in Hamlet’s eyes. “I understand you not, my lord,” replied Guildenstern in confusion. “I am glad of it; a knavish speech sleeps in a foolish ear,” Hamlet answered, proving that he is fully aware and content with the confusion he causes (Shakespeare 96). If Hamlet is truly awarere of his actions and is …show more content…

For example, death and its inevitability act as a recurring allegory amid Shakespeare’s piece. Hamlet recites an abundance of soliloquies, or monologues presented only to the audience and speaker, reflecting on death, if he is ready to kill, and if he is really ready to die himself. In his “To Be or Not To Be” soliloquy within the premier scene of Act III, Hamlet contemplates suicide and reflects on its consequences, one of his key ideas being to “take arms against a sea of troubles, and by opposing end them. To die, to sleep…” (Shakespeare CITE). This quote ultimately means that Hamlet is willing to die, or to not be, and to as a result cleanse himself of the many convictions and troubles that he struggles and to deal with. They act as noyances to his overall mental health; this does not mean that he is indeed suffering from insanity, but instead supports the theory that he is facing severe depression. Ophelia could not bear the immense troubles she carried on her frail shoulders and proved Hamlet’s point by committing suicide, thus relieving her from her troubles bore. Hamlet reflects further on death by interacting with the ghost of his father and the skull of his deceased fool, Yorick, within Act V of the play. The most obvious factor in the allegory that is death is the fact that a majority of the major characters die by the play’s conclusion, by

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