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Capital asset pricing model introduction
Capital asset pricing model introduction
The Capital Asset Pricing Model Intercontinental
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Long-Term Financing
An established company is considering expanding its operations, and to achieve their business objectives, the company will require additional long-term capital financing. Long-term financing involves debt or equity instruments with greater than one-year maturities, and the cost of this long-term capital can be calculated using either the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) or Discounted Cash Flows (DCF) Model. This report will consider the costs and characteristics of various long-term debt and equity financial instruments, and discuss financial prudent debt/equity ratios. Various dividend and principal repayment policies will also be considered for corporate bonds.
Economist William Sharpe Won the Noble Prize in 1990 for his research on what devolved to be the CAPM theory on estimating the cost of capital for firms and evaluating the performance of managed portfolios. Sharpe "provided much of the basis for what is now termed the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)" (Frängsmyr, 1991) through a financial model that explains how securities are priced based on their potential risks and returns. "CAPM is a linear relationship between returns on individual stocks and stock market returns over time" (Block & Hirt, 2005, p. 342). Although more than one formula exists for the CAPM, the most common is referred to as the market risk premium model presented below (Block & Hirt, p. 343):
Kj = Rf + β(Km Rf)
Where: Kj = return on company's common stock
Rf = the risk free rate of return (short-term Treasury bill securities),
β = beta coefficient, or historical volatility of common stock relative to market index, and
Km = average market return based on an appropriate market index.
The market risk premium formula assumes that the rate of return or premium demanded by investors is directly proportional to the perceived risk associated with the common stock. The beta coefficient is a measure of stock volatility for the individual firm, relative to an equivalent market indicator of similar stocks. Higher betas mean greater risk. When the risk associated with a particular stock is equal to the market index risk or average risk across multiple stocks, the beta coefficient (β) will equal 1.0, and Km = Kj. More volatile stocks will have a beta coefficient greater than 1.0, whereas less volatile stocks will have a beta less than 1.0. If the risk free rate of return (Rf) and average market return (Km) are considered fixed, then the required rate of return for company stock can be calculated for the security market line (SML) or required rate of return.
In SIVMED’s case, based on the definition of WACC, all capital bases should be included in its WACC. These include its common stock, preferred stock, bonds and long-term borrowings. In addition to being able to compute for the costs of capital, the WACC also determines how much interest SIVMED has to pay for all its activities. The value of the firm’s stock, which we want to maximize, depends of the after-tax cash flow. Hence, after-tax values for WACC are also needed. Furthermore, cost of capital is used to determine the cost of each debt, stock or common equity. Being able to analyze these will be essential into deciding what and how new capital should be acquired. Hence, the present marginal costs are ideally more essential than historical costs.
The first financial ratio of the analysis is the Price to Earnings ratio (“P/E ratio”). The ratio is computed by dividing the price of one share of common stock, by the earnings per share of common stock. This analysis uses diluted earnings per share which assumes the issuance of new stock for all existing stock options. Also, the price of the stock was computed as an average of the fourth quarter high and low stock prices published in the 10K report of each company, because the year end stock prices were not listed for all the companies. Because the P/E ratio measures the relative costliness of different stocks, in relation to their income, it provides a useful place to begin the analysis.
First of all an analysis of the packaging machine investment’s hurdle rate is required. I will use comparable firm parameters approach to figure out the hurdle rate (WACC) of the firm using the information provided in Exhibit 5. The cost of debt should be calculated using the bond information given in footnote 2 of case under Exhibit 2. The cost of equity should be calculated using the Capital Asset Pricing Model.
Based on the optimal capital structure analysis, they should pursue as 70% debt proportion, which will give them the lowest cost of capital at 11.58%. Currently Star has no debt in their capital structure, so these new projects should begin to add debt to the company. However, no matter what debt and equity proportions are chosen for each project, the discount rate of 11.58% should be used, as the capital budgeting decisions should be independ...
Target Corporation: Report on Long-term Financing Policy and Capital Structure with an Acquisition Analysis Introduction This report will be based on the Target Corporation, and will consist of two sections: 1) long-term financing policy and capital structure, and 2) an acquisition analysis. The first section will include: Target's most recent long-term financing decision; an analysis of the economic, business, and competitive background in which the financing occurred; Target's book value and market value; possible changes that would occur to Target's finance policy and capital structure if it was forced to consider re-organization and bankruptcy strategies; and finally discuss Target's international investment and financing opportunities, as well as foreign exchange risks. The second section will be a report to the board of directors that identifies a synergistic acquisition candidate for Target.
The estimates of cost of capital for equity 6.14% are making by using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) to generate forecast of DDM and RIM. This method is defined by the sum of risk free rate plus beta that multiplied with a risk premium. Particularly, the beta, which is a quantitative measure of the volatility of company stock relative to the unstable of the overall market, found in JB HI-FI case at 0.56 (JB HI-FI financial statement 2016). It
Their poor financial performance required them to use less traditional instruments to obtain financing. The capital acquired supported their growth until they reached a level of profitability in 1978. Subsequently, they continued to increase their net income and the quality of their balance sheet. With continued prospects for growth tempered by some regulatory uncertainty, they need to determine their optimal financial structure for the future. CAPITAL REQUIREMENTS MCI's capital requirements for the next 3 years are x,y and z. See Exhibit A for more information.
We defined several criteria to determine our choice – return, risks and other quantitative and qualitative factors. Targeting a debt ratio of 40% will maximize the firm’s value. A higher earning’s per share and dividends per share will lead to a higher stock price in the future. Due to leveraging, return on equity is higher because debt is the major source of financing capital expenditures. To maintain the 40% debt ratio, no equity issues will be declared until 1985. DuPont will be financing the needed funds by debt. For 1986 onwards, minimum equity funds will be issued. It will be timed to take advantage of favorable market condition. The rest of the financing required will be acquired by issuing debt.
Discounted Cash Flow Method takes the forecast free cash flows during forecasted horizon. Then we estimate the cost of capital (weighted average cost of capital) and estimate continuing value (value after forecast horizon). The future value is discounted to the present value. We than add back cash ($13 Million) and non-current assets and deduct total debt. With the information provided several assumptions had to be made to obtain reasonable values (life period of 30-years, Capital expenditures not to exceed $1 million dollars, depreciation to stay constant at $1.15 Million and a discounted rate of 10%). Based on our analysis, the company has a stand-alone value of $51 Million at the end of fiscal year end 1990 with a net present value of cash flows of $33 million that does not include the cash and non-current assets a cash of and non-current assets.
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is an ex ante concept, which is built on the portfolio theory established by Markowitz (Bhatnagar and Ramlogan 2012). It enhances the understanding of elements of asset prices, specifically the linear relationship between risk and expected return (Perold 2004). The direct correlation between risk and return is well defined by the security market line (SML), where market risk of an asset is associated with the return and risk of the market along with the risk free rate to estimate expected return on an asset (Watson and Head 1998 cited in Laubscher 2002).
Brealey, Richard A., Marcus, Alan J., Myers, Stewart C. 1999, Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 2nd edn, Craig S. Beytien, USA.
The final model used to compute the cost of capital was the earning capitalization model. The problem with this model is that it does not take into consideration the growth of the company. Therefore we chose to reject this calculation. The earnings capitalization model calculations were found this way:
The capital structure of a firm is the way in which it decides to finance its operations from various funds, comprising debt, such as bonds and outstanding loans, and equity, including stock and retained earnings. In the long term, firms seek to find the optimal debt-equity ratio. This essay will explore the advantages and disadvantages of different capital structure mixes, and consider whether this has any relevance to firm value in theory and in reality.
4. Harry Davis’s common stock is currently selling at $50 per share. Its last dividend (D0) was $4.19, and dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of 5% in the foreseeable future. Harry Davis’s beta is 1.2, the yield on T-bonds is 7%, and the market risk premium is estimated to be 6%. For the bond yield plus risk premium approach, the firm uses a 4% point risk premium.
The Modern portfolio theory {MPT}, "proposes how rational investors will use diversification to optimize their portfolios, and how an asset should be priced given its risk relative to the market as a whole. The basic concepts of the theory are the efficient frontier, Capital Asset Pricing Model and beta coefficient, the Capital Market Line and the Securities Market Line. MPT models the return of an asset as a random variable and a portfolio as a weighted combination of assets; the return of a portfolio is thus also a random variable and consequently has an expected value and a variance.