Reasons For The Murder Of Macbeth

May it please the court; the defence has tried to glorify Macbeth and divert
you from his acts of murder, which he inflicted. The question remains, is Macbeth guilty of the murder of our once beloved King Duncan? Questions still cloud our judgement, including Macbeth’s motives—was it deliberate? Was the murder committed and covered up by Macbeth? Ladies and gentlemen, it nay be impossible to determine the truth in these allegations of murder against Macbeth, because simply put, he undoubtedly committed regicide.

Members of the jury, King Duncan was ruler of Scotland, where the Scottish lineage to the throne is passed from father to the first-born son. However, if Duncan had no living sons, it was possible for a member within the same bloodline to lay claim to the throne as ruler of Scotland. Ladies and gentlemen, this poses the question, what is Macbeth’s reasoning for the murder of King Duncan if he was not part of the bloodline and so had no legitimate claim to the throne?

Members of the Court are you aware that Macbeth is, in fact, the King’s cousin, therefore, part of the bloodline. Prior to Duncan’s death, he stated to Macbeth, “O valiant cousin! Worthy gentleman?” (Pg. 32), therefore confirming through the language

The conspiracy between Macbeth and his wife is considered in Act 1 scene 7 where Lady Macbeth states, “The unguarded Duncan? What no put upon his spongy officers who shall bear the guilt of our great quells?” (Pg.3). This positions the audience to understand that the death of King Duncan was going to be placed on the servants who guard Duncan’s chambers. Lady Macbeth’s role in the crime was to drug the servants as well as arranging for a bell that would indicate the execution of the crime. This is shown when Macbeth heard the bell, “I go and it is done; the bell invites me” (Act 2, Scene