To What Extent Is Grendel's Mother A Phallic Mother

1306 Words3 Pages

Rachna Shah

Maanasa's Q&A notes
(Topic: Grendel’s Mother)

1. How is Grendel’s mother a “phallic mother”? What is this role in the story?

Q1 - Mother - Grendel has no father. Grendel’s mother is the only thing that caused Grendel to exist.
Phallic - Her sword. (Eroticism when Beowulf employs the sword on her.)
Also implies a Oedipal complex between Grendel and his mother, who live alone together. Grendel’s decapitation through the use of his mother’s sword implies an incestuous relationship between the two.

Because she is both masculine and feminine, she is a phallic mother. However, it’s important to note that her power comes from her feminine qualities.

2. As Beowulf was written a long time ago, could Grendel’s mother be a representation …show more content…

If Beowulf has elucidated the masculine power of Grendel’s mother, wouldn’t it enhance Beowulf’s own masculinity, as he has beaten her?

The poet emphasizes her feminine qualities, despite her power. For Beowulf, it would be damaging to admit that it was difficult to beat Grendel’s mother out of virtue of her being a woman. Because the people view her as a woman, he can’t overrepresent her without making himself seem weak.

Could emphasize the origin role of mother, rather than the ‘woman’ aspect of mother, as well as the combined role of mother and father.

However, the townspeople have seen and experienced the trauma of Grendel’s attacks. The people weren’t plagued by the mother, but by Grendel. By stating that he defeated their monster not once, but twice, it is more likely people would look up to him than if he elaborated on defeating the mother, even if she was worse than Grendel.

5. Why doesn’t Beowulf bring both of the dead back? Wouldn’t this bring him twice the honor?

Beowulf wants to tell the story in a very specific way. He wants to emphasize the battle with Grendel rather than with Grendel’s mother, despite the latter one being more difficult.

(Side-note: The head is a distraction, leaves all onlookers in the hall …show more content…

7. Does the hiding of Grendel’s mother speaks more to Beowulf’s character or the society?
It speaks more to society, and what society deems acceptable for Beowulf to say.

8. Is there a point where man can yield their pride and admit to a woman’s value in society?

No, not in the story. The story takes place in a short era wherein not enough change can occur. The society only acknowledges certain qualities of a woman - such as the Queen’s generosity - and only when these qualities are a boon to them. Society wouldn't acknowledge Grendel's mother or her strength in physical battle.

Liana's Q&A Notes
(Topic: Role of Women in Beowulf)

How effective is the violence in Beowulf as a means of strength when women utilize it?

The author argues for the strength of the Evil Queen and Grendel’s mom. Grendel’s mom was more effective, however, because she wasn’t constrained by society. The Evil Queen had societal obligations when she married; she had to act in a certain way, and couldn’t simply kill whoever she wanted. Violence, however, is most effective when no social obligation exists for its user. Grendel’s mom’s actions were justified by society, in terms of their code of vengeance, but because she is an outcast, she didn’t even have to comply with society’s rules in the first

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